CCNA2 FINAL VERSI 1

CCNA2 FINAL VERSI 1

1. A customer reports connectivity problems to an ISP technician. Upon questioning the customer, the technician discovers that all network applications are functioning except for FTP. What should the technician suspect is the problem?
*misconfigured firewall
bad port on switch or hub
misconfigured IP addressing on the customer's workstation
wrong DNS server configured on the customer's workstation
wrong default gateway configured on the customer's workstation

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the data conversation shown? (Choose two.)
*The data conversation was started by the HTTP application process running on the client.
The data conversation is identified by TCP port 80 on the client.
The user started the data conversation by sending an e-mail.
The IP address of the Internet server is 192.168.17.43.
*The Internet server will send data to port 8547 on the client.

3. How do port filtering and access lists help provide network security?
*They prevent specified types of traffic from reaching specified network destinations.
They alert network administrators to various type of denial of service attacks as they occur.
They prevent viruses, worms, and Trojans from infecting host computers and servers.
They enable encryption and authentication of confidential data communications.

4. A hacker attempts to reach confidential information that is stored on a server inside the corporate network. A network security solution inspects the entire packet, determines that it is a threat, and blocks the packet from entering the inside network. Which security measure protected the network?
an IDS
*an IPS
a host-based firewall
Anti-X software

5. Which type of address is 192.168.17.111/28?
host address
network address
*broadcast address
multicast address

6. An organization has 50 traveling salespersons who must be able to connect to the company network from client sites and hotels. Which WAN connection will allow this access?
Frame Relay
Cable
DSL
*dialup

7. From which router was this command executed?
A
B
*C
D

8. A ping issued from PC3 is successful to RTB. However, echo request packets arrive at PC1 but the echo replies do not make it back to PC3. What will fix this problem?
RTA must be configured to forward packets to the 192.168.2.0 network.
*The ip route command needs to be edited so that the next hop address is 10.1.1.5.
The ip route command needs to be edited so that the 192.168.2.1 address is the next hop address.
The ip route command should be removed from the RTB router configuration.
Another default route should be configured on RTA with a next hop address of 10.1.1.6.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet mask would accommodate the number of hosts indicated for all subnets if the major network address was 192.168.25.0/24?
255.255.0.0
255.255.224.0
255.255.255.0
*255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

10. Which routing protocol facilitates the exchange of routing information between different autonomous systems?
OSPF
EIGRP
RIP
*BGP

11. Which statement is correct about passive data connections in the FTP protocol?
The server initiates the data transfer connection.
*The server forwards its IP address and a random port number to the FTP client through the control stream.
The firewalls do not permit passive data connections to hosts that are located within the network.
The client forwards data to port 21 of the server.

12. Which statement is true about the reverse lookup DNS zone?
It is most commonly experienced when users are surfing the Internet.
It is the backup for the forward lookup zone.
It dynamically updates the resource records.
*It resolves an IP address to a fully qualified domain name.

13. Which two statements are correct about the DNS hierarchy? (Choose two.)
The root server maintains records for all servers in the Internet.
*DNS relies on the hierarchy of decentralized servers to maintain records.
All DNS servers manage databases that store name-to-IP mappings for the entire DNS structure.
The process of name resolution starts from the server at the top of the DNS hierarchy.
*The root servers maintain records about how to reach top-level domain servers.

14. Which statement is correct about the proxy support that is offered by the HTTP protocol?
It allows clients to make direct network connections to other network services.
*It filters unsuitable web content.
It reduces the speed of the network.
It encrypts the data that is being transmitted.

15. Which routes are automatically added to the routing table on a neighbor router when routing protocols exchange information about directly connected networks?
*dynamic routes
static routes
default routes
directly connected routes

16. Which combination of network address and subnet mask allows 62 hosts to be connected in a single subnet?
Network address 10.1.1.4 Subnet mask 255.255.255.240
Network address 10.1.1.0 Subnet mask 255.255.255.252
*Network address 10.1.1.0 Subnet mask 255.255.255.192
Network address 10.1.1.4 Subnet mask 255.255.255.248

17. Refer to the exhibit. There is no routing protocol configured on either router. Which command will create a default route on R1 to forward the traffic to R2?
R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
*R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2
R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.1
R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1

18. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
*It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
It has an administrative distance of 1.
It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

19. What is a characteristic of UDP?
It is a reliable transport protocol.
It requires the source host to resend packets that are not acknowledged.
*It adds a minimal amount of overhead to the data to be transmitted.
It is a connection-oriented protocol.

20. What can cause a problem at the data link layer?
a faulty network cable
a firewall that is blocking all HTTP traffic
*incorrectly configured device drivers
incorrectly configured subnet masks

21. Which cable type is used to interconnect the FastEthernet interfaces of two routers?
straight-through
*crossover
console
rollover

22. Which two statements are correct about the UDP protocol? (Choose two.)
It utilizes a flow control mechanism.
It uses windowing.
*It does not provide acknowledgment of receipt of data.
*It is a connectionless protocol.
It guarantees the sequential arrival of data packets.

23. Which type of WAN connection uses a circuit-switched network?
*ISDN
Frame Relay
DSL
Cable

24. What could be the reason for this problem?
The subnet mask is incorrectly configured on both routers.
A static route is not configured on both routers.
*Different encapsulations are configured on the two routers.
The clock rate is not set on any of the router serial interfaces.

25. What is the purpose of using the copy tftp flash command on a router?
to back up the current IOS image to a server
*to restore the IOS image from a server
to back up the router configuration to a server
to restore the router configuration from flash

26. Which statement correctly describes the function of AAA?
*It prevents unauthorized access to a network.
It filters traffic based on destination IP and port number.
It enables users to send information to a daemon that is running on a management station.
It encrypts data to provide network security.

27. Which statement correctly describes the importance of an SLA?
It outlines the range of services received by the ISP.
It outlines the process to resolve planned incidents.
*It outlines the management, monitoring, and maintenance of a network.
It outlines the termination costs according to the budget cycle of the customer.

28. A user is able to ping IP addresses but is unable to ping hosts by domain name. What should be checked at the workstation of the user?
the device driver configuration of NIC
the LED status of the NIC
*the DNS configuration
the firewall settings

29. A user is unable to connect to the Internet. The network administrator decides to use the top-down troubleshooting approach. Which action should the administrator perform first?
Run the tracert command to identify the faulty device.
Check the patch cable connection from the PC to the wall.
*Enter an IP address in the address bar of the web browser to determine if DNS has failed.
Run the ipconfig command to verify the IP address, subnet mask, and gateway on the PC.

30. What is a characteristic of the EIGRP routing protocol?
It has a hop count limitation that makes it suitable only for small, simple networks that consist of fewer than 15 hops.
It does not include subnet mask information in routing updates.
*It builds the topology table based on all of the advertisements from its neighbors.
It maintains a full database of distant routers and the methods by which they interconnect.

31. A network is spread across two buildings that are separated by a distance of 500 feet (152 meters). An electrical transformer is installed near the cable route. Which type of cable should be used in this network?
STP
UTP
coaxial
*fiber-optic

32. Refer to the exhibit. Which cable path segments require the use of crossover cables?
A, D, F
B, C, E
*B, D, E
A, C, F

33. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured with the commands that are displayed. Which password will be used to access the EXEC privileged mode of the router?
password1
*password2
password3
password4

34. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to ping R1. Which two configuration steps should be performed on R1 to solve this problem? (Choose two.)
Configure the appropriate line password to access the router.
Configure the speed of the interface.
*Enable the interface administratively.
Configure a dynamic routing protocol on the router.
*Configure the subnet mask on the router correctly.

35. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to ping host B. What can be done to solve this problem? (Choose two.)
Configure a default route on R1 with the use of exit interface Fa0/0.
Configure a default route on R2 by using the exit interface Fa0/0.
Configure a static route on R1 with 192.168.0.1/24 as the next hop address.
*Configure a static route for network 10.1.2.0/24 on R2 and use exit interface S0/0/0.
*Configure a static route for network 10.1.1.0/24 on R1 with the next hop address as the IP address of the serial interface of R2.

36. What are two reasons for issuing the show ip route command on a router? (Choose two.)
It displays the routing activity in real time.
It displays the length of time until the next routing update.
*It displays the directly connected networks.
It displays all of the routing protocols that are configured on the neighboring routers.
*It displays the routing protocol that is receiving updates from the neighboring routers.

37. When a router learns two paths to the same destination network, which two factors determine the path that will be included in the routing table? (Choose two.)
*route metric
the MAC address of the neighboring router
the source IP address in data packets
the IP address of the next hop router
*administrative distance

38.Refer to the exhibit. A network technician issues the tracert 192.168.2.99 command successfully on host A. What are two consequences of running this command? (Choose two.)
The traceroute packet is broadcast to the network.
The command output will display the IP address of both the inbound and outbound router interfaces that the packet passes through.
*The command output will display all routers through which the packet has passed.
All successful hops between host A and host B will reply to the echo request with a proxy ICMP response.
*The command will calculate the time between when the packet is sent and when a reply is received from a router.

39. A host has been properly cabled and configured with a unique hostname and valid IP address. Which two additional components should be configured to enable the host to access remote resources? (Choose two.)
*the subnet mask
the MAC address
*the default gateway
the loopback IP address
the DHCP server IP address

40. Refer to the exhibit. What two addresses are the broadcast addresses for network A and network B? (Choose two.)
Network A broadcast address 192.168.1.32
*Network A broadcast address 192.168.1.47
Network A broadcast address 192.168.1.15
*Network B broadcast address 192.168.1.207
Network B broadcast address 192.168.1.240
Network B broadcast address 192.168.1.192

41. A network administrator has designed a Class B network with a 255.255.254.0 mask. Which two statements are true for this network? (Choose two.)
*There are 128 subnets.
There are 256 subnets.
There are 512 subnets.
There are 126 usable hosts per subnet.
There are 254 usable hosts per subnet.
*There are 510 usable hosts per subnet.

42. Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are configured with the commands that are displayed. All interfaces are properly configured, but neither router is receiving routing updates. What two things can be done to solve the problem? (Choose two.)
*Configure the routing protocol on R1 for network 10.0.0.0.
*Configure the routing protocol on R2 for network 10.0.0.0.
Configure the routing protocol on R1 for network 192.168.4.0.
Configure the routing protocol on R1 for network 192.168.2.0.
Configure the routing protocol on R2 for network 192.168.1.0.
Configure the routing protocol on R2 for network 192.168.3.0.

43. Which two statements are correct about the ICMP packet that is used by the ping command? (Choose two.)
It guarantees datagram delivery.
*It verifies Layer 3 connectivity.
It acknowledges the receipt of TCP segments.
It determines where a packet is lost on the path from the source to the destination.
*It measures the time that elapses between when the request packet is sent and the response packet is received.

44. What is the effect of issuing the banner login #Unauthorized login prohibited# command on a router?
*It will display the message "Unauthorized login prohibited" before the router prompts for a user name.
It replaces the banner motd command.
It causes the router to prompt for login credentials for any user who is attempting to connect to the router.
It causes the message "Unauthorized access prohibited" to display when a HyperTerminal connection is idle.

45. Refer to the exhibit. What fact can be determined from the exhibited output?
PPP is enabled on this router.
The bandwidth setting of the interfaces is consistent with a T1 connection.
The serial0/0/0 interface is administratively down.
*The default encapsulation is set for the serial0/0/0 interface.
Subnet mask 255.255.255.255 has been configured for the serial0/0/0 interface.

46. In order to load an initial configuration on a new switch, a network administrator has connected a laptop to the switch via the use of a console cable. About a minute after the network administrator powers on the switch, the SYST LED on the front of the switch changes from blinking green to amber. What does this indicate?
The network administrator has made an improper physical connection to the switch.
The switch is ready to have a configuration file loaded.
A port on the switch is bad.
*The switch failed POST.

47. What occurs during a static NAT translation?
Multiple local addresses are mapped to one global address.
The host device is configured with a permanent outside global address.
*A one-to-one mapping is created between an inside local and outside global address.
The router is forced to return the inside global address to the address pool when a session ends.

48. Refer to the exhibit. What is used to exchange routing information between routers within each AS?
static routing
*IGP routing protocols
EGP routing protocols
default routing

49. Why do the static routes fail to appear in the routing table?
The default route has not been configured on the routers.
A dynamic routing protocol has not been configured.
*The router interfaces are administratively down.
The serial interfaces must be configured with an address in the 10.14.14.0 network.

50. Refer to the exhibit. While configuring the serial interface of a router, the network administrator sees the highlighted error message. What is the reason for this?
The serial interface is administratively down.
The serial interface is already configured with an IP address.
*The network administrator has attempted to configure the serial interface with a broadcast address.
The same IP address has been configured on another interface.

51. Refer to the exhibit. R2 is connected to the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1 and is properly configured to share routing updates with R1. Which network will R2 exclude from installing in its routing table?
R 192.168.10.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.1.2, 00:00:10, Serial0/0/1
R 192.168.7.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.1.2, 00:00:10, Serial0/0/1
*R 192.168.6.0/24 [120/15] via 192.168.3.2, 00:00:10, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.2, 00:00:10, Serial0/0/0

52. How does an SNMP trap aid network monitoring and management?
It reports to the management station by responding to polls.
It collects information for the management station by using polling devices.
*It sends an alert message to the management station when a threshold is reached.
It flags attempts to begin a DoS attack on the network.

53. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true based on the exhibited information?
The router is using a link-state routing protocol.
*The router will get routing updates on the FastEthernet0/0 interface.
The router will not forward routing updates from the Serial0/0/0 interface.
The network for Fa0/1 will be included in the routing updates that are sent from this router.

54. Different hosts connect to the same switch port at different times. If the switch port is configured with dynamic port security, how does it process the MAC addresses?
The addresses are manually assigned with the use of the switchport command.
*The addresses are dynamically learned and stored in the address table.
The addresses are dynamically configured and saved in the running configuration.
The addresses are stored in the address table and added to the running configuration.

CCNA S2- Version 4.1 Chaper 9 100%

1. Refer to the exhibit. What are two possible causes for the interface status? (Choose two.)
The loopback address is not set.
*The encapsulation type is mismatched.
A cable is not attached to the interface.
*Keepalive messages are not being received.
The interface is administratively shut down.

2. A network administrator is upgrading a Cisco 1841 router by adding a WIC-2T module card. Which show command can the administrator use to verify that the module is correctly recognized by the router?
show flash:
*show version
show ip route
show startup-configuration

3. Which two conditions identify issues that are confined to Layer 1? (Choose two.)
*cables that exceed maximum length
encapsulation errors
viruses and worms that create excessive broadcast traffic
*poor termination of cables
receiving "line protocol down" messages on the router console

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)
*FastEthernet0/0 is functioning correctly.
*The shutdown command has been applied on Serial0/0.
FastEthernet0/0 was configured by the startup-config at bootup.
Serial0/0 is experiencing a Layer 1 network problem.
*FastEthernet0/1 is experiencing a Layer 2 network problem.
Because the port is down, Serial0/1 has an IP address that does not show in the output.

5. A network administrator plugs a new PC into a switch port. The LED for that port changes to solid green. What statement best describes the current status of the port?
There is a duplex mismatch error.
There is a link fault error. This port is unable to forward frames.
*The port is operational and ready to transmit packets.
This port has been disabled by management and is unable to forward frames.
The flash memory is busy.

6. A user is having trouble accessing the Internet. A network administrator begins by verifying that the IP address of the PC is correctly configured. Next the administrator pings the default gateway. Based on this information, what type of troubleshooting method is the administrator employing?
top-down
bottom-up
*divide-and-conquer
impossible to determine from this information

7. A user can access any web page on the Internet but cannot access e-mail. What troubleshooting method would be most efficient for troubleshooting this issue?
*top-down
bottom-up
divide-and-conquer
impossible to determine from this information

8. Which problem is associated with Layer 4 of the OSI model?
*A firewall is blocking Telnet packets to a host.
A host has an incorrect IP address.
A router has no route to a host.
A host sent a malformed HTTP request.

9. An administrator is creating a lab to simulate a WAN connection. During the setup, the administrator notices that there are different encapsulation types on each end of the serial connection. At what layer of the OSI model is this problem occurring?
*Layer 2
Layer 4
Layer 5
Layer 6

10. A PC is able to reach devices that are located both inside and outside the network. However, when trying to reach an FTP server that is located on the same subnet, the PC fails to make a connection. The administrator has several other PCs that are located in the same subnet try a connection to the FTP server and they are successful. Which troubleshooting tool can be used to determine the problem between the PC and the FTP server?
cable tester
digital multimeter
*protocol analyzer
network analyzer

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address is misconfigured and is causing connectivity problems between hosts and servers?
HostA
HostB
Server1
*Server2
R1 Fa0/0
R1 Fa0/1

12. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 10.12.10.0/24 network are unable to access anyone on the 10.10.10.0/24 network. What two problems exist in the network? (Choose two.)
*R2 is using a different version of RIP.
*R2 has a missing network statement.
R1 has an incorrect network statement.
R3 has an incorrect network statement.
A routing loop is occurring between all three routers.

13. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is in the process of sending a preconfigured text file to a router. When the administrator pastes the configuration into the router, an error message appears. What is the problem with the IP addressing scheme?
Serial0/0 is configured with a network address.
The IP address on FastEthernet0/0 overlaps with the IP on FastEthernet0/1.
Serial0/1 is configured with a broadcast address.
*The IP address on FastEthernet0/0 overlaps with the IP on Serial0/1.

14. Refer to the exhibit. Host H1 on the LAN is not able to access the FTP server across the Internet. Which two configuration statements are causing this problem? (Choose two.)
There is no route to the Internet.
The IP address on Fa0/0 is incorrect.
The IP address on S0/0/0 is incorrect.
*The NAT command on the Fa0/0 interface is applied in the wrong direction.
*The NAT command on the S0/0/0 interface is applied in the wrong direction.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is trying to ping router B at 192.168.2.2, but it fails. What is the problem?
The PC is on the wrong subnet.
*The default gateway on the PC should be 192.168.1.1.
The default gateway should be 192.168.2.2.
The DNS server is incorrect.
The IP address for Fa0/0 on router A is incorrect.

16. How many usable host addresses does the 192.168.1.0/25 subnet provide?
254
128
127
*126
64

17. A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI model. Which question would provide further information about the problem?
*Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?
Do you have a link light on your network card?
Is your PC configured to obtain addressing information using DHCP?
What default gateway address is configured in your TCP/IP settings?
Can you ping www.cisco.com?

CCNA S2- Version 4.1 Chaper 8 100%

1. Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet when remotely managing a router?
*encryption
TCP usage
authorization
connection using six VTY lines

2. Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
query
broadcast
ICMP ping
*trap
poll

3. What is the term used to describe the area of a network which stores servers that are accessible to any users from the Internet?
"clean" LAN
intranet
*DMZ
extranet

4. Before a technician upgrades a server, it is necessary to back up all data. Which type of backup is necessary to ensure that all data is backed up?
daily
differential
*full
incremental
partial

5. A company wants to configure a firewall to monitor all channels of communication and allow only traffic that is part of a known connection. Which firewall configuration should be deployed?
packet filtering
proxy
*stateful packet inspection
stateless packet inspection

6. Which three protocols describe methods that can be used to secure user data for transmission across the internet? (Choose three.)
SMTP
*IPSEC
*SSL
*HTTPS
FTP
TFTP

7. What network layer security protocol can secure any application layer protocol used for communication?
HTTPS
IMAP
FTPS
*IPSEC
TLS

8. Which three items are normally included when a log message is generated by a syslog client and forwarded to a syslog server? (Choose three.)
*date and time of message
*ID of sending device
length of message
*message ID
checksum field
community ID

9. What AAA component assigns varying levels of rights to users of network resources?
auditing
accounting
*authorization
access control
authentication
acknowledgement

10. A network administrator is assigning network permissions to new groups of users and employing the principle of least privilege. Which two actions should the administrator take? (Choose two.)
*Provide users with only the access to resources required to do their jobs.
*Provide the minimum level of permissions required for users to do their jobs.
Remove all permissions from the users and grant permissions as they are requested.
Allow users to decide how much permission they need to accomplish their job tasks.
Provide full access to the users and gradually remove privileges over time.

11. A hacker has gained access to sensitive network files. In analyzing the attack, it is found that the hacker gained access over a wireless segment of the network. It is further discovered that the only security measure in place on the wireless network is MAC Address Filtering. How is it likely that the hacker gained access to the network?
The hacker used a software tool to crack the shared hexadecimal wireless key.
*The hacker obtained the MAC address of a permitted host, and cloned it on his wireless laptop NIC.
The attacker mounted a denial of service attack to overwhelm the firewall before penetrating the wireless LAN.
The hacker gained wireless access to the MAC address database and added his own MAC address to the list of permitted addresses.

12. What is the advantage of using WPA to secure a wireless network?
It uses a 128-bit pre-shared hexadecimal key to prevent unauthorized wireless access.
*It uses an advanced encryption key that is never transmitted between host and access point.
It is supported on older wireless hardware, thus providing maximum compatibility with enterprise equipment.
It requires the MAC address of a network device that is requesting wireless access to be on a list of approved MAC addresses.

13. hat are two potential problems with using tape media to back up server data? (Choose two.)
Tape is not a cost-effective means of backing up data.
Data tapes are difficult to store offsite.
*Data tapes are prone to failure and must be replaced often.
*Tape drives require regular cleaning to maintain reliability.
Backup logs are not available with tape backup solutions.

14. Refer to the exhibit. While the user on router A is connected to router B through telnet, the CTRL-SHIFT-6 x keystroke is entered. What effect does this have?
It logs the user out of router A.
*It suspends the connection to router B.
It closes the connection to router B.
It logs the user out of both router A and router B.

15. What two measures help to verify that server backups have been successfully completed? (Choose two.)
*reviewing backup logs
*performing a trial restore
performing full backups only
replacing tape backup with hard disk-based backup
using an autoloader when backups require more than one tape

16. Which three applications can be used for in-band management? (Choose three.)
FTP
*HTTP
*SNMP
*Telnet
TFTP
DHCP

17. Which two characteristics of network traffic are being monitored if a network technician configures the company firewall to operate as a packet filter? (Choose two.)
*ports
physical addresses
packet size
frame sequence number
*protocols

18. Which AAA service provides detailed reporting and monitoring of network user behavior, and also keeps a record of every access connection and device configuration change across the network?
authentication
accreditation
*accounting
authorization

19. While downloading an IOS image from a TFTP server, an administrator sees long strings of exclamation marks (!) output to the console. What does this mean?
*The transfer is working.
The TFTP server is not responding.
The IOS file is corrupt and is failing the checksum verification.
There is not enough space in flash to hold the image.

20. What does the command copy flash tftp accomplish?
*It copies the IOS in flash to a TFTP server.
It copies the startup-configuration file in flash to a TFTP server.
It copies the running-configuration file in flash to a TFTP server.
It copies the configuration register settings in flash to a TFTP server.

CCNA S2- Version 4.1 Chaper 7 100%

1. A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network. How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client?
applies the default service configured in directory services
uses ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router
sends a request to the client asking for the appropriate service
*identifies the appropriate service from the destination port field

2. What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake?
It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination hosts.
It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data.
*It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers.
It identifies the destination application on the receiving host.

3. What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)
connection oriented
full-duplex operation
*low overhead
*no flow control
*no error-recovery function
reliable transmission

4. Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair?
source port with destination port
source IP address with destination port
source IP address and destination IP address
*source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port

5. What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource records with a DNS server whenever changes occur?
*dynamic
zone transfer
local recursive query
root domain query
top-level domain query

6. Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name?
dynamic lookup
forward lookup
resolution lookup
*reverse lookup

7. Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.)
maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries
maintaining the ISP server
*mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
*forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server
forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet

8. Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server to another server?
SNMP
FTP
*SMTP
HTTPS

9. A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from their ISP. The services required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.)
*FTP
*HTTP
DNS
SNMP
DHCP
*SMTP

10. To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on what two factors? (Choose two.)
accessibility
adaptability
*availability
*reliability
scalability

11. Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.)
The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI model.
The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual protocols.
*The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.
The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection.
*The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers.

12. What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP?
*caching-only
root
second-level
top-level

13. Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose two.)
DNS - 25
FTP - 110
*HTTP - 80
POP3 - 25
*SMTP - 25

14. What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.)
It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses.
It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link layers.
*It supports authentication.
It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows.
*It encrypts packets with SSL.
*It requires additional server processing time.

15. User1 is sending an e-mail to User2@cisco.com. What are two characteristics of the process of sending this data? (Choose two.)
It utilizes TCP port 110.
A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client computers in order to send the e-mail message.
*It utilizes a store and forward process.
The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from the destination server.
*SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.

16. Which three fields do a TCP header and a UDP header have in common? (Choose three.)
*source port
window
*checksum
*destination port
acknowledgment number
sequence number

17. When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the same time, which two values will likely be the same in all packets for each session? (Choose two.)
*IP address
*MAC address
session number
sequence number

18. What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.)
*Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.
Reliability is measured based on the number of applications in use on the network.
The longer the MTTR, the greater the reliability.
*Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.
*The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability.
An ISP guarantees the same level of reliability to all of its customers.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?
Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2.
Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2.
Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2.
Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1.
Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1.
*Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.

20. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request?
Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1045
*Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1061

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.)
If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically.
*The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10.
*If the ping www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Cisco web server IP address before DNS is queried.
The command ping mypc will use IP address 172.16.5.1.
Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from DNS.

CCNA S2- Version 4.1 Chaper 6 100%

1. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
*It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.

2. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
*Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.

3. In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)?
when the company's ISP adds connection points to the Internet
when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork
when more than one interior routing protocol is used
*when the company uses two or more ISPs

4. What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority?
Internet
intranet
virtual private network
*autonomous system

5. Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol?
*BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP

6. What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data?
*border gateway router
DSLAM
web server
interior router

7. Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?
source IP address
source MAC address
*destination IP address
destination MAC address

8. What statement is true regarding an AS number?
*AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.
Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers.
ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers.
All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.

9. Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs?
*BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP v2

10. Consider this routing table entry:

R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1

What type of route is this?
a static route
a default route
*a RIP route
an OSPF route
an EIGRP route
a directly-connected route

11. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available?
in 30 seconds
in 60 seconds
in 90 seconds
*immediately

12. What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates?
metric
*subnet mask
area identification
hop count
autonomous system number

13. What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
a home business with one ISP connection
*a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs
*a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs
a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP
a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP

14. Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.)
They are created in interface configuration mode.
*They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.
They automatically become the default gateway of the router.
*They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S
They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown.

15. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?
Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.
Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.
Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.
*Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown?
routerA(config-router)# no version 2
routerA(config)# interface fa0/0
routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0
*routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway

17. Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers are running RIP. There are two paths from router A to the 192.168.3.0 network. Based on the output of the show ip route command on router A, which route was entered into the routing table and why?
A,B,C,D because it has the lowest administrative distance
A,E,F,G,D because it has the lowest administrative distance
*A,B,C,D because it has the lowest metric
A,E,F,G,D because it has the lowest metric

18. What is the purpose of the network command in configuring RIP?
to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol
to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers
*to identify the directly connected networks that will be announced in RIP updates
to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP
to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router

19. Refer to the exhibit. If connectivity between the two hosts is maintained, what is the maximum number of RIP routers that can be in the path from HostA to HostB?
14
*15
16
17

20. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
drop the packet
forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.0
forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.64
*use the default route

CCNA S2- Version 4.1 Chaper 5 100%

1. What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to "LAB_A"?
*Router> enable
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router# configure router
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router(config)# host name LAB_A

2. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
*VTY interface
*console interface
Ethernet interface
secret EXEC mode
*privileged EXEC mode
router configuration mode

3. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
console
AUX
*Telnet
modem

4. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
*Set the command history buffer size.
*Recall previously entered commands.
Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

5. A router has a valid operating system and a configuration stored in NVRAM. When the router boots up, which mode will display?
global configuration mode
setup mode
ROM monitor mode
*user EXEC mode

6. Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
transmission of data
reception of data
*clocking for the synchronous link
noise cancellation in transmitted data

7. In what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
*SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser.
SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices.
*SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.
SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration.

8. What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.)
*host name
DHCP options
*domain name
interface IP addresses
*enable secret password
DNS server IP addresses

9. Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)
ATM
CHAP
*Frame Relay
*HDLC
PAP
*PPP

10. What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet?
host name
domain name
DHCP address pool
*DNS server IP address

11. To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination?
*Tab
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-N
Up Arrow
Right Arrow
Down Arrow

12. How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?
blinks rapidly amber
blinks rapidly green
*steady amber
steady green

13. Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?
Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop.
Telnet to the switch from the router console.
*Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.
The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection to check these settings.

14. Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
*platform
routing protocol
*connected interface of neighbor device
*device ID
IP addresses of all interfaces
enable mode password
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will correctly configure the serial interface on Router2?
Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.11 255.255.255.252
Router2(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router2(config-if)# no shutdown
Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.11 255.255.255.252
Router2(config-if)# no shutdown
Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.9 255.255.255.252
Router2(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router2(config-if)# no shutdown
*Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.9 255.255.255.252
Router2(config-if)# no shutdown

16. When utilizing SDM Express, which two configuration options allow a router serial interface to obtain an IP address without manually configuring it? (Choose two.)
Static IP Address
Frame Relay encapsulation
*IP Negotiated
HDLC encapsulation
*IP Unnumbered

17. Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway via the switch console port. The switch VLAN 1 interface is assigned IP address 192.168.5.68/26. What command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.1
*X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.126
X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.190
X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.192
X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.192 192.168.5.1

18. Refer to the exhibit. Users on both SW1 and SW2 report that they are unable to communicate with each other. A network administrator issues show ip interface brief commands on both routers to troubleshoot the connectivity between the two networks. What action will correct the connectivity issue?
Configure a default route on router RA pointing to router RB.
Modify the network address of the serial link from a /30 to a /24.
Issue a clock rate command on the s0/0/0 interface on router RA.
*Issue a no shutdown command on the s0/0/0 interface on router RB.
Issue a debug ip rip on both routers to verify that the routing protocol is functioning properly.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show port-security interface fastethernet0/1 command on the switch, which statement about the switch port is true?
The port has been shut down.
Only three unique MAC addresses are permitted to use this port.
*There are ten devices with different MAC addresses connected to this port.
Port security has been violated seven times on this port.

20. What step must be completed before port security can be enabled on an interface?
The interface must be shut down.
*The interface must be in access mode.
The maximum number of MAC addresses must be configured.
The violation mode must be configured.

21. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to a switch on the same LAN via Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)
Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1
Switch1(config)# exit
*Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch1(config)# line con 0
Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
*Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
*Switch1(config)# enable secret class

22. Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
All router commands are available.
Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
*This is the default mode on an unconfigured router when first powered up.
Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
*Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

23. Which of the following identifies the correct items needed to initially configure a router?
1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a straight through cable
3) the router's console port
1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a crossover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port
1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port
1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's console port
*1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's console port
1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port

24. An administrator enters the show ip route command into a router. What type of information will be displayed?
the current configuration stored in RAM
*the networks learned from other neighbors
the encapsulation and bandwidth of every interface
the private IP addresses translated to public IP addresses
Switch1(config)# exit

25.A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?
The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch.
*There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.
The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC.
The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch.

CCNA S2- Version 4.1 Chaper 4 100%

1. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
128
254
255
*256
512
1024

2. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
11110010
11011011
11110110
*11100111
11100101
11101110

3. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
*254
255
256
510
511
512

4. What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
192.168.0.0
192.168.0.255
192.168.32.0
192.168.32.254
*192.168.32.255

5. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
6
14
*30
62

6. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
*Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E

7. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
*Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
*The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

9. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
*to preserve registered public IP addresses
to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks
*to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
to make routing protocols operate more efficiently
to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers

10. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
64
96
*128
192
256
512

11. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.
*The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
*All subnets in a network are the same size.
Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.

12. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address.
A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address.
*Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.
Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications.

13. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.
The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.
The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.
*The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.

14. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
127 to 191
127 to 192
*128 to 191
128 to 192

15. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13
2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13
2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13
*2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95
*192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128

17. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
*inside global
outside local
outside global
private IP address

18. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
255 and below
1023 and below
*1024 and above
64,000 and above

19. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. HostA has sent a request to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?
10.1.1.2
172.30.20.1
*172.30.20.10
192.168.1.1